I admit that I don't get the point that Walther has just made. As though he anticipated that a reader might not get his point, Walther cites the example of Matthew 19:3-9 in which Christ has said that divorce is to be allowed because of the hardness of hearts of the people involved.
"Does," Walther asks, "the question of master-slave therefore also belong to the category which during Old Testament times were permitted, according to worldly law, but according to moral law and conscience were sinful and therefore punishable by God?"
Walther's main argument is that Scripture does not condemn slavery. He cites several examples to buttress his contention.
Having done his persuasive best, Walther states, patiently, that "Truly, we cannot understand how a believing Christian can read this and still agree with the humanists of our times that slavery and serfdom are unjust. We assert that anyone who still has regard for God's word will be pierced by these words into his very heart. Anyone dreaming this modern world's dream of abolition, should perceive these words as God's slaps, waking him from his dream. For here the apostle, in the Holy Spirit, explains in plain words that all he had said before, concerning the slave's conduct toward his master, should be taught by every preacher of the Gospel; and that he who teaches otherwise in is in the dark and knows nothing, no matter how brilliant he considers himself. Such a man, therefore, is to be avoided by the believing Christian!"
This is a serious point in the discussion, isn't it?
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